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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 04:09

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why are Democrats deflecting and aren’t as tough on Hunter Biden with all of his criminal activity and his rising possibility of him receiving a charge for illegally owing a gun?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why doesn't California have the tools, people, means to put out these fires even though they know there will be fires every year?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why do some men like anal sex?

There's no rule.